eg 4% 1,000 payable loan - with a 10% premium on redemption.
This means that the EFFECTIVE interest rate is more than 4% - because we haven’t yet taken into account the extra 100 (10% x
1,000) payable at the end. So the examiner will tell you what the effective rate actually is - let’s say 8% (not enough info in the
question to calculate this)
The crucial point here is that you presume the effective rate is the same as the market rate so the initial FV is still 1,000
Do'stlaringiz bilan baham: