Anatomy Review – suto unit 1
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- A. Connective B. Epithelium C. Muscle D. Nervous
- A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. A and B E. B and C
- A. Adipose B. Osseous C. Hyaline
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Unit 1 1. The word “structure” relates to the study of __________________ while the word “function” relates to the science of ______________________.
2. The microscopic anatomy that analyzes the internal structure of individual cells is
3. The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body: 1. tissue 2. cell 3. organ
4. molecule 5. organism 6. organ system The correct order from the smallest to the largest level would be a. 2, 4, 1, 3, 6, 5 b. 4, 2, 1, 3, 6, 5 c. 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5 d. 4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5 e. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 6 4. The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed a. positive feedback b. homeostasis c. negative feedback d. effector control e. none of the above 5. The regulatory mechanism that occurs when a variation outside of normal limits triggers an automatic response that corrects the situation is a. negative feedback b. positive feedback c. effector regulation d. receptor regulation e. disease 6. When the initial stimulus produces a response that reinforces the stimulus, the mechanism is called… a. receptor activation b. effector shutdown c. negative feedback d. positive feedback e. thermoregulation 7. A person who is lying face up with the palms up is known specifically as… a. supine position b. prone position c. anatomical position d. frontal position e. sagittal position 8. Which indicates the front of the body? a. anterior b. posterior c. dorsal d. superior 9. Which of the following is lateral to the eyes? a. nose
b. forehead c. scalp
d. chin e. ears
10. The knee is considered __________ to the hip. a. proximal b. distal c. anterior d. posterior e. none of the above 11. The umbilicus (belly button) is __________ to the chest. a. anterior b. superior c. posterior d. inferior e. lateral 12. The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into the
13. The ventral body cavity is divided into a superior ___________________ cavity and an inferior _______________________ cavity a. pleural; mediastinum b. thoracic; abdominopelvic c. pericardial; pleural d. abdominal; pelvic e. cranial;spinal 14. The thoracic cavity contains all of the following except…
15. The mediastinum separates __________ from the __________. a. the pleural cavity; coelom b. the thoracic cavity; peritoneal cavity c. one pleural cavity; other pleural cavity d. the abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity e. the pericardial sac; pericardial cavity 16. In making an anatomical display a cadavar is cut vertically into right and left parts which are unequal, exposing the inner parts for inspection .This type of section (plane) is called a. parasagittal b. midsagittal c. frontal d. transverse e. coronal 17. A magician is about to separate his assistant’s body into “upper and lower” portions. The plane through which he will pass his magic wand is the
18. In a human, the “upper and lower” from the previous question would be which of the following? a. Anterior/posterior b. Superior/inferior c. Proximal/distal d. Medial/lateral e. Dorsal/ventral 19. Which sectional plane could divide the body so that the face remains intact? a. sagittal plane b. coronal plane c. equatorial plane d. midsagittal plane e. none of the above 20. Organs situated within the mediastinum include: a. heart, lungs, and esophagus b. heart, esophagus, and trachea c. thyroid, lungs, and liver d. pancreas, liver, and spleen e. stomach, pancreas, and heart
1. The four chemical elements that make up 94 percent of the weight comprising the human body are: A. oxygen, nitrogen, sodium, and iron B. carbon, calcium, nitrogen, and phosphorous C. hydrogen, potassium, oxygen, and calcium D. carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen 2. The nucleus of an atom is the location of which kinds of subatomic particles? A. electrons B. protons and electrons C. neutrons and protons D. neutrons and electrons 3. When an atom loses one or more electrons, it: A. becomes a cation B. becomes an anion C. forms a covalent bond D. becomes an isotope 4. The atomic weight of an element indicates… A. the mass of the protons only B. the mass of neutrons only C. the mass of the electrons D. A and B E. A and C 5. Isotopes contain… A. the same number of protons but a different number of electrons. B. the same number of protons and neutrons. C. the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons. D. an equal number of neutrons and electrons 6. The weakest bond that occurs in living organisms is... A. ionic B. covalent C. polar covalent D. metallic E. hydrogen 7. Ionic bonds are formed when…
8. Which of the following is NOT true regarding a covalent bond? A. it is less stable than an ionic bond B. it is formed by the sharing of electrons C. it is the most common bond found in the living things D. make up organic compounds 9. The chemical reaction illustrated by the following – (A + B AB) is a: A. decomposition reaction B. synthesis reaction C. double replacement D. single replacement 10. Identify the reaction type represented by the following – AB + C AC + B A. decomposition reaction B. synthesis reaction C. double replacement D. single replacement 11. A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. alkaline D. none of the above 12. Which of the following substances would be least acidic? A. lemon juice, pH = 5.5 B. urine, pH = 6 C. tomato juice, pH = 4 D. white wine, pH = 3 E. stomach secretions, pH = 2 13. Which of the following is true with reference to the pH scale? A. the lower the pH the more acidic it is B. the higher the pH the more acidic it is C. the pH scale runs from 1-14 D. the lower the pH the more basic it is 14. Which of the following is NOT an example of an inorganic compound? A. water B. acid C. base D. salt E. enzyme 15. Which of the following statements about water is not correct? A. It is composed of polar molecules B. It makes up 2/3 of the human body’s mass C. It has a relatively low specific heat capacity D. It dissolves many compounds E. It contains hydrogen bonds 16. The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is A. sucrose B. starch C. protein D. vitamin B12 E. glucose 17. The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in near 1:2:1 ratio is defined as a
A. carbohydrate B. lipid C. protein D. nucleic acid E. none of above 18. In the human body many smaller glucose molecules may combine to form the larger starch molecule for storage which is known as… A. cellulose B. triglyceride C. glycogen D. ATP 19. Which of the following is NOT disaccharide? A. Lactose B. Glucose C. Sucrose D. Maltose 20. A fatty acid that contains three double covalent bonds in its carbon chain is said to be A. saturated B. polyunsaturated C. monounsaturated D. monosaturated 21. In a phospholipid, which of the following replaces a fatty acid? A. an amino group B. a monosaccharide C. a glycerol D. a phosphate group 22. You would expect to find a peptide bond linking A. two simple sugars B. one amino acid to another C. two nucleotides D. a fatty acid and a glycerol molecule E. a cholesterol molecule and a fatty acid molecule 23. A peptide bond will form between… A. two R groups B. an amino group and a carboxyl group C. a fatty acid and a glycerol D. two monosaccharides 24. The molecules that store and process information are known as… A. carbohydrates B. nucleic acids C. proteins D. enzymes 25. Proteins differ from carbohydrates chemically because they contain… A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Carbon
1. The basic structural and functional unit of the human body is A. protein B. the cell C. tissue D. the organ E. the organ system 2. Ribosomes are made of: A. mRNA and protein B. rRNA and protein C. cytosol and tRNA D. tRNA and mRNA 3. The mitochondria function to produce… A. proteins B. ATP C. DNA D. Glucose 4. Centrioles are useful in which of the following processes? A. Energy production B. Cell division C. Waste storage D. A and C E. All of the above 5. Because white blood cells engulf and break down invaders, they contain a large number of which of the following organelles? A. Ribosomes B. Chromosomes C. Lysosomes D. Centrosomes 6. These are made of DNA and proteins known as histones: A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Chromosomes D. Lysosomes 7. Because muscle cells require a great deal of energy, this organelle is more abundant than in other cells: A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. RER D. Golgi bodies 8. The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of A. osmosis B. active transport C. diffusion D. facilitated diffusion E. filtration 9. The movement of water across a membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration is known as A. osmosis B. active transport C. diffusion D. facilitated diffusion E. filtration 10. A solution that contains a lower solute concentration than the cytoplasm of a cell is called A. holotonic B. hypertonic C. isotonic D. hypotonic E. semitonic 11. A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called A. active transport B. passive transport C. facilitated transport D. osmosis E. diffusion 12. The process by which vesicles containing solid objects such as bacteria are formed on the surface of a cell for transport into the cell is called A. pinocytosis B. phagocytosis C. exocytosis D. receptor-mediated endocytosis E. none of the above 13. If red blood cells are placed in a(n): A. isotonic solution, hemolysis occurs B. hypotonic solution, no change will occur C. distilled water, the cells will shrivel D. hypertonic solution, crenation occurs 14. All three structures of the cytoskeleton provide: A. pathways for transport B. structural support C. cell movement D. all of the above 15. Ribosomes are: A. the powerhouse of the cell B. the garbage disposal of the cell C. found on smooth E.R. D. the protein factory 16. The organelles that are responsible for processing protein molecules, sorting them, and delivering them are: A. ribosomes B. mitochondria C. Golgi bodies D. nucleoli 17. The “wrecking crew “ of a cell consists of certain organelles capable of removal of cell parts and even destruction of a whole cell. These organelles are called: A. ribosomes B. leucosomes C. lysosomes D. killosomes 18. The proper sequence for mitosis is:
19. The cell's DNA is located in the A. ribosomes B. nucleolus C. lysosomes D. nucleus E. Golgi complex 20. The control center for cellular operations is the A. nucleus B. nucleolus C. cell membrane D. Golgi apparatus E. none of the above 21. A DNA nucleotide consists of:
C. adenosine, phosphate, and ribose D. deoxyribose, phosphate, and a nitrogen base 22. If the sequence of nitrogenous bases along one section of DNA is TATGCA, the sequence formed in mRNa will be: A. ATACGT B. AUACGU C. TATGCA D. UTUCGT 23. As each codon binds at the active site of a ribosome, it interacts with another molecule. This molecule is called A. DNA B. mRNA C. ribosomal RNA D. tRNA E. rough ER 24. Which of the following sequences is correct? A. DNA - tRNA - mRNA - protein B. DNA - ribosome - mRNA - protein C. DNA - mRNA - tRNA - protein D. DNA - mRNA - rRNA - protein E. none of the above 25. During which stage in the cell cycle does replication occur? A. interphase B. prophase C. metaphase D. anaphase Unit 4 - Histology Multiple Choice – Choose the best answer and mark the correct letter on the scantron. 1. The study of tissues is known as.. A. Cytology B. Physiology C. Epidemiology D. Histology 2. The type of tissue that is the most abundant in the body, usually has a rich blood supply and is characterized by a large amount of intercellular material is : A. vascular tissue B. muscle tissue C. connective tissue D. glandular tissue 3. The macrophage is an important cell found in the loose connective tissue and functions as: A. a source of fiber in this tissue B. a chemical that stimulates dialation C. a pigment cell beneath the epidermis D. a defense cell responsible for engulfing invaders 4. Fibrocartilage… A. is located within the knee joint B. make up the majority of the embryonic skeleton C. makes up the clavicle at birth D. is located between vertebrae 5. The three types of muscle tissue are: A. dense, loose, and striated B. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac C. squamous, cuboidal, and columnar D. skeletal, smooth, and connective 6. Which of the following would NOT be a characteristic of epithelial tissue? A. conducts impulses B. uninterrupted layer covers surfaces C. cells are polarized D. basement membrane separates from underlying tissue 7. A cell with a single layer of cells that appear to be multi-layered best describes: A. stratified tissue B. columnar tissue C. pseudostratified tissue D. all of the above
8. Allows for organ movement within the body 9. Cells of this tissue may absorb and/or secrete substances 10. Is specialized for contraction 11. Forms hormones 12. Stores energy reserves as fat 13. Lines body cavities 14. Allows you to smile, grasp, swim, ski and shoot an arrow 15. Tissue type associated with support 16. Transmits an electrical potential via dendrites and axons 17. Produces immunity 18. Forms the brain and spinal cord The three types of muscle tissue exhibit certain similarities and differences. Select the best answer from the choices provided for each of the following: A. Skeletal B. Cardiac C. Smooth D. A and B E. B and C19. Voluntarily controlled 20. Involuntarily controlled 21. Banded appearance due to striations 22. Single nucleus in each cell 23. Multinucleate 24. Allows you to grasp a pencil 25. Found in the walls of stomach, uterus and arteries 26. Contains long, non-branching cylindrical cells known as fibers 27. Displays intercalated disks 28. Tissue of the circulatory pump
29. Found in tendons, provides great strength through parallel bundles of collagen 30. Acts as a energy storage 31. Forms the bony skeleton 32. Located at the surfaces of bones at the joints; reinforces the trachea or windpipe 33. Provides insulation for the body 34. Contains cells arranged in concentric circles around a central canal 35. Forms the embryonic skeleton Using the following choices, identify the memgrane involved: A. Cutaneous B. Mucous C. Serous D. Synovial 36. Lines cavities open to the outside 37. Found in joints, produces fluid to decrease friction 38. Cover surfaces of the body 39. Minimizes friction between organs 40 Lines sealed internal cavities
1. Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except one. Identify the exception a. protection of underlying tissue b. excretion c. maintenance of body temperature d. synthesis of vitamin C e. nutrition and storage 2. The two components of the cutaneous membrane are the a. epidermis and dermis b. epidermis and subcutaneous layer c. dermis and subcutaneous layer d. integument and dermis e. epidermis and superficial fascia 3. Accessory structures of the skin include a. hair follicles b. sebaceous and sweat glands c. nails d. a and b only e. all of the above
5. 3-5 layers 6. From deep to superficial ,the second layer 7. Moving from deep to superficial, the 1st layer that does not receive nourishment 8. Produces millions of new cells daily 9. Water repellent 10. From deep to superficial, it is the 3rd layer 11. The deepest layer 12 The only other layer besides #8 that may still divide mitotically 13. Contains Langerhans cells 14. 20-30 layers of dead cells 15. The outermost layer of cells 16. The layer containing the youngest cells. 17. The layer containing the most keratinized cells From the list of cells provided, match with the appropriate function: A. Keratinocytes B. Melanocytes C. Langerhans D. Merkel cellsl E. Meissner’s Corpuscles 18. Sensitive to touch, found in dermis 19. Produce protein that is waterproofing 20. Sensory in epidermis 21. Produce photoprotective pigment 22. Macrophages in epidermis
a. is produced by cells called melanocytes and is found in higher concentration in individuals with darker skin b. is usually some shade of red, yellow or brown c. protects DNA from the damaging effects of U.V. radiation d. a and c only 24. Exposure of the skin to ultraviolet light a. can result in increased numbers of melanocytes forming in the skin b. can result in decreased melanin production by melanocytes c. can cause destruction of vitamin D d. can result in damage to the DNA of cells in the stratum germinativum e. has no effect on the skin cells 25. Glands that discharge a oily secretion into hair follicles are a. ceruminous glands b. apocrine sweat glands c. sebaceous glands d. merocrine sweat glands e. mammary glands 26. Nail production occurs at the a. body b. bed c. root d. cuticle e. free edge 27. The dense mass of dead, keratinized cells of the nail is the a. body b. bed c. root d. cuticle e. free edge 28. The condition that results from clogged sebaceous glands is a. a boil b. a carbuncle c. acne d. a blister e. none of the above 29. Skin pigmentation is due to all of the following EXCEPT… a. melanin b. albinin c. carotene d. hemoglobin 30. The layer of the skin that provides protection against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the a. dermis b. subcutaneous layer c. epidermis d. papillary layer e. sebum layer 31. When the arrector pili muscles contract a. "goose bumps" are formed b. hairs are shed c. sweat is released from sweat glands d. shivering occurs e. the skin changes color 32. Hair is composed of a. discharge from sebaceous glands b. dead keratinized cells c. reticular tissue d. epidermal ridges e. the hypodermis 33. Dermal papillae form… a. hair follicles b. sweat glands c. fingerprints d. keratinocytes e. lunula Unit 6 - Skeletal 1. Mature bone cells are termed a. osteocytes b. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts d. chondrocytes e. osteons 2. Large, multinucleated cells that can dissolve the bony matrix are termed a. osteocytes b. stem cells c. osteoblasts d. osteoclasts e. chondrocytes 3. The medullary cavity of bones contains a. compact bone b. osteons c. cartilage d. marrow
4. The shaft of a long bone is called the a. epiphysis b. diaphysis c. osteon d. epiphyseal plate e. lamella 5. The lining of the marrow cavity is called the a. endosteum b. periosteum c. epimysium d. perimysium
6. Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a. a fibrous connective tissue model b. a cartilaginous model c. a membranous model d. a calcified model e. no model at all, just the presence of osteoblasts 7. When sexual hormone production increases, bone growth a. slows down b. accelerates rapidly c. increases slowly d. increases, but only in thickness e. is not affected 8. Vitamin D is necessary for a. collagen formation b. absorption and transport of calcium and phosphate ions c. reducing osteoblast activity d. increasing osteoclast activity e. the formation of the organic framework of bone 9. A lack of exercise would a. cause bones to become thicker b. cause bones to store more calcium c. result in thin, brittle bones d. increase the length of a bone e. have no effect on a bone 10. When stress is applied to a bone a. osteoblast activity increases b. osteoclast activity increases c. it becomes thin and brittle d. it bends e. trabeculae are formed perpendicular to the zone of stress to increase strength 11. The normal loss of bone that occurs with aging is called a. osteopenia b. osteoporosis c. osteogenesis d. osteoinflammation e. bone cancer 12. Only one of the four curves of the adult spinal column are present at birth. Which of the following is it? a. cervical b. sacral c. lumbar d. thoracic e. none of the above 13. As this curve develops a baby is able to hold its head up… a. cervical b. sacral c. lumbar d. thoracic
14. Types of tissue found in bones include all of the following except: a. blood b. cartilage c. fibrous connective tissue d. nerve tissue e. muscle tissue 15. Abnormal reduction of bone mass is termed: a. osteogenesis b. osteoporosis c. osteopenia d. rickets e. osteomalacia 16. The term used to describe any bony projection or bump where muscle attaches is: a. ramus b. fossa c. sulcus d. process
17. The ends of a long bone are known as the...
18. This contains the epiphyseal plate a. Epiphysis b. Diaphysis c. Metaphysis d. Trochanter e. Neck
20. This bone is commonly fractured during strangulation a. Occipital b. Sella turcica c. Hyoid d. Xiphoid process e. Patella 21. In the cranium, this is where two bones fuse. a. Periosteum b. Epiphyseal plate c. Suture d. Meatus e. Sinus
22. This is the term for the formation of red blood cells a. Ossification b. Osteopenia c. Leukogenesis c. Hemopoiesis e. Erythropenia 23. Which of the following has a lower percentage of spongy bone? a. wrist b. femur c. cranium d. clavicle e. ankle
24. Primary ossification centers are located in … a. the center of the epiphysis b. the metaphysis c. the diaphysis d. periosteum 25. In which of the following would osteoprogenitor cells be found? a. periosteum b. Caniliculi c. Lacuna d. Endosteum 26. The growth plate is found in which of the following? a. Endophysis b. Epiphysis c. Metaphysis d. Diaphysis 27. A cleft palate results when the following does not fuse properly during development: a. Maxilla b. Mandible c. Temporal d. Zygomatic 28. This structure is used as a landmark for performing CPR a. Manubrium b. Greater trochanter c. Clavicle d. Xiphoid process 29. Bone repair can occur when… a. Osteoclast activity > Osteoblast activity b. Osteoblast activity > Osteoclast activity 30. Which of the following bone cells mitotically divides: a. Osteoprogenitor b. Osteocytes c. Osteoclasts d. Osteoblasts 31. Which of the following reflects the correct number of each type of vertebrae? a. 32. Which of the following curvatures would be concave? a. 33. These are present in the infant skull prior to complete ossification. a. Identify whether the characteristic corresponds to a. Compact bone b. Spongy bone c. Both 34. Osteon 35. Shaft of long bones 36. Present where there would be forces from many directions 37. Dense 38. Latticework 39. Trabeculae 40. Force in one direction Download 109 Kb. Do'stlaringiz bilan baham:
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