I n t e r n a L medicine questions Bank

45 year-old male patient presents with retrosternal chest pain, radiating to left arm. Troponin is negative. CK is 320. Next step in management:

1. 
   Reassure and send home
   
2. 
   Start heparin
   
3. 
   Start thrombolytics
   
4. 
   Observation
   
5. 
   Ask for the CK-MB fraction.
   

59. 
    Patient with history typical of MI. Found to have ST segment depression in leads aVF, V2, and V3. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is normal. Right ventricle pressure is 65/20. Right atrial pressure is 25/10. Neck veins are distended. Diagnosis is:
    

1. 
   Mitral valve prolapse
   
2. 
   Right ventricular infarction
   

60. 
    Type II respiratory failure is likely to be present in a patient with the following ABGs:
    

a. Hypoxia, Hypercapnia, low pH

61. 
    correct about the exacerbation of COPD:
    

1. 
   Mechanical ventilation maybe helpful in management if pH is <7.15
   
2. 
   ?
   

62. 
    Correct about Turner syndrome:
    

1. 
   Likely to be diagnosed at birth
   
2. 
   Typically diagnosed around puberty
   
3. 
   End up to have a tall stature
   

63. 
    Wrong or right about diabetic retinopathy???:
    

1. 
   Hard exudate are the first to appear
   
2. 
   Hard exudates result from retinal infarction
   
3. 
   Hard exudate carry worst prognosis than soft exudate
   
4. 
   None of the above
   

64.